- Joined
- Nov 12, 2021
Was there even a similar precedent for banning an athlete? I mean - a ban directly during the Olympics (or deprivation of medals later) on the basis of positive doping tests taken not during the Olympics, but earlier?
I see many examples of athletes not being allowed to come to the Olympics if they have previously tested positive, and many examples of athletes being banned already during the Olympics if they have tested positive there.
But was there an example of an athlete taking a test before the Olympics, then, not knowing the results of the test, came to the competition, took the tests there again, this time negative, and then the previous results appeared - and he was banned?
If there was no such precedent, then this in itself could have influenced the decision of the court.
I see many examples of athletes not being allowed to come to the Olympics if they have previously tested positive, and many examples of athletes being banned already during the Olympics if they have tested positive there.
But was there an example of an athlete taking a test before the Olympics, then, not knowing the results of the test, came to the competition, took the tests there again, this time negative, and then the previous results appeared - and he was banned?
If there was no such precedent, then this in itself could have influenced the decision of the court.

