I am not trying to be obtuse or contrary. NO ONE wants bias or corruption, we all want the same thing.
I think what I am trying to say is that numbers alone on one skater from one comp (unless it fifty points more than any other skater) will not support a finding, for me, that the judge intentionally discriminated.
I confess I am influenced by my background, which is legal. (This is exceedingly simplified of course) In the US legal system, there are two different kinds of discrimination: disparate treatment and disparate impact.
1. Disparate treatment: actual proof of discrimination. Proof that someone says "I won't hire <class of people> because they are lazy and stupid".
In skating, "I scored Skater X higher in return for a promise that Judge ABC would score Skater Y from my country higher."
2. Disparate impact: Company does not hire <class of people> based on numbers of persons hired
Disparate impact requires a large number of people to prove. So that you can present meaningful statistics, you can show "But for" discrimination, of the X number of applications from <class of people>, any company that wasn't discriminating would have hired Y. And they didn't, they hired Y minus 20. Or the "inexorable zero" ( a legal term I love.

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So if we are trying to prove bias based on numbers, for me personally, I need more than one judge at one comp.
I'm sorry to geek out and possibly be confusing, I'm just trying to make a good faith effort to explain my approach.